I'm not interested in slave girls per se. I'm interested in consistency, and was wondering how these two contradictory passages could be resolved.

That's a pretty good answer, and I'm wondering how widely accepted it is amongst Islamic scholars. I had a recent discussion with Islamic scholar Jonathan Brown about how Saudi Arabia justified the abolition of slavery in the 1960's, and his answer was a lot more complicated than that. Don't we still have to ask why slavery should disappear, not just assume that it's disappearance immediately dissolves all problems associated with it?

Of course there is a lot of sexual slavery, but not all women working in massage parlors, brothels etc. are enslaved. The abolition of slavery has no effect on their status. What basis does Islam have for condemning their work, given that Muhammad did not condemn such activity? I'm not trying to catch you up, I just want to know how Islamic thinkers deal with this issue.

I know that Islamic Slavery was a lot more humane than the racially based slavery of Europe and America. I wrote about that here. https://medium.com/@teedrockwell/washington-jefferson-and-muhammad-all-owned-slaves-should-we-tear-their-statues-down-17eeb756b628